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English Grammar


cutting auxilliary

Scrooge
User since 2011
Posts: 78

27 April 2015

In my daily lesson "The Payment Letter" I read the grammar reminder about the contractions. I have>I've ...
I've read it in many others infact but It's only today that this question popped out from nowhere.
If < I have > becomes < I've >
does < I have had > can be written < I've'd > ?
Thank you

4 comments

  • User since 2006
    Posts: 2715

    30 April 2015

    If I had had to use that expression, I would have said "I've had" but who knows?  I might be wrong or right.
  • User since 2011
    Posts: 78

    5 May 2015


    We have the same POV in this case. I've never seen this contraction pattern in my reads yet but who know?
    Not me 4 sure !.
    Thanks !
  • User since 2010
    Posts: 115

    18 June 2015

    Hi guys! "Double" contractions like the one you suggest don't exist in English, so we would say "I've had", "I wouldn't" (not "I'dn't"), etc.

    Have a nice day!
  • User since 2011
    Posts: 78

    18 June 2015


    I was almost sure for, as I said, I never read this contraction but I don't know very well any grammar rule either.I happen to see some strange combination that prove to be grammatically correct despite what I first thought .
    Thank you

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