cutting auxilliary
In my daily lesson "The Payment Letter" I read the grammar reminder about the contractions. I have>I've ...
I've read it in many others infact but It's only today that this question popped out from nowhere.
If < I have > becomes < I've >
does < I have had > can be written < I've'd > ?
Thank you
I've read it in many others infact but It's only today that this question popped out from nowhere.
If < I have > becomes < I've >
does < I have had > can be written < I've'd > ?
Thank you
Posts: 78
5 May 2015