English Grammar

Since he lost his sense of smell, he can not ...

Ann

User since 2016
Posts: 1

7 July 2016

"he can" should be "he's not been able to': after since + past simple there usually is a present perfect, not a present simple.

1 comments

AhQ ['a: kiu]
User since 2006
Posts: 2715
8 July 2016

Hi there Ann. Please have a look at my way to settle this grammar point. 'Since' may have several meanings.

YOU take it as meaning "from the time in the past when". So that should be told "Since he lost his sense of smell in 2006, he hasn't been able to tell a stink from a scent any more."

The GG sentence uses 'since' as meaning "because", "in view of the fact that". In such a way the sentence has to be "Since he lost his sense of smell, he cannot tell a stink from a smell."

Do you agree?
Hi there Ann. Please have a look at my way to settle this grammar point. 'Since' may have several meanings. YOU take it as meaning "from the time in the past when". So that should be told "Since he lost his sense of smell in 2006, he hasn't been able to tell a stink from a scent any more." The GG sentence uses 'since' as meaning "because", "in view of the fact that". In such a way the sentence has to be "Since he lost his sense of smell, he cannot tell a stink from a smell." Do you agree?

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